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Other Cisco Exams

1 Which three statements best describe Cisco
Application Networking Manager(ANM)? (Choose three)
A. Cisco ANM can manage
virtual products and management-level domains through a number of Cisco ACE
modules
B. Be able to discover, deploy, monitor and report a number of
virtual products on Cisco ACE modules
C. Accomplish completely transparent
deployment
D. The speed is low in the implementation process.
Answer:
ABC

3. Which statement best describes a redundant installation by use of
content switching?
A. It uses GSLB for global site load balancing.
B. It
is also called site selection.
C. It only works for TCP-based
applications.
D. It provides local redundancy in a single data
center.
Answer: D

4. A single Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance deals with all
data center and the data center traffic. At which traffic level point will you
consider purchasing a second Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?
A. when the L4 Perf
CPS reaches 80,000
B. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 20,000
C. when the L7
Perf CPS reaches 40,000
D. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 100,000
Answer:
D

5. Taking a Cisco ACE Module implementation into consideration, a site
survey should first be taken to confirm which two requirements? (Choose
two.)
A. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled
port
Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine 32
Cisco IOS Software
Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or later
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Switch chassis with an
open-fabric-enabled port
Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Supervisor Engine
4
Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(31)SGA or later
C. Cisco 7600 Switch
chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port
Cisco 7600 Series Supervisor Engine
720
Cisco 7600 Series Route Switch Processor 720
Cisco IOS Software
Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or later
D. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch chassis with an
open-fabric-enabled port
Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine
720
Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or later
Answer: CD

6.
The output from a Cisco ACE Module show version command is displayed as
follows:
Software
loader: Version 12.2[118]
system: Version 3.0(0)A1(2)
[build 3.0(0)A1(2) jwilley_23:41:53-2006/06/11_
/auto/adbu-rel/ws/REL_3_0_0_A1_2]
system image file: [LCP]
disk0:c6ace-t1k9-mz.3.0.0_A1_2.bin
installed license: no feature license is
installed
For the following options, which SLB software version is running on
the Cisco ACE Module?
A. 3.0(0)
B. 1.2
C. 12.2
D. 1.18
Answer:
B

7. Which installation requirement is for Cisco ANM?
A. Windows 2003
Server
2 GB RAM
120 GB HD
B. Windows NT 4.1
2 GB RAM
50 GB
HD
C. Ubuntu Linux Server 7.0
4GB RAM
80 GB HD
D. Red Hat Enterprise
Linux 4.5
2 GB RAM
60 GB HD
Answer: D

8. NetQoS adopts the
method of performance priority to manage the network infrastructures, which main
functions does it provide?(Select all appropriate)
A. The end-to-end
performance monitoring
B. Analyzing the communication traffic
C. Device
performance management
D. IT cost calculation
E. Trace network
analysis
Answer: ABCDE

2 What set of primitive signals is
valid for arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS,
ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. CLS, OPN,
ARB
Answer: E

3. Which of these TCP ports does iSNS use?
A.
3205
B. 3225
C. 3226
D. 3325
Answer: A

4. Which three of
these Fibre Channel words are known as primitive signals? (Choose three.)
A.
NOS
B. R_RDY
C. CLS
D. LIP
E. IDLE
Answer: BCE

5. Which of
these is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel
encoding?
A. K28.5
B. 8B/10B
C. 3B/4B
D. D28.5
E. idle
Answer:
A

6. In Cisco MDS, how is a pWWN assigned to a dynamically assigned
iSCSI?
A. by the system
B. by the user in the configuration of the iSCSI
target
C. by the iSCSI host
D. created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver,
and Connection ID
E. by the storage system attached to Fibre
Channel
Answer: A

7. Is the iSNS client supported on VRRP
interfaces?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the storage_services_enabler_pkg
license is enabled on the switch
D. only on Cisco IPS line cards
Answer:
B

8. Can Cisco Fabric Services be used to distribute iSCSI initiator
configurations?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP_18_4
license is installed on the switch
D. only when ENTERPRISE_PKG is installed
on the switch
Answer: A

3 The typical antenna for a root bridge in a multipoint deployment
is a(n) _____.
A. Yagi antenna
B. Sector antenna
C. Parabolic dish
antenna
D. Omni-directional antenna
Answer: D

3. A community wants
to give officers access to the station house s server when they are on the road
to view police records, which could help avert potential deadly and threatening
individuals. The design has several bridges distributed throughout the city to
provide coverage in every area of the city.What antenna would be most
appropriate on the police cruiser?
A. an omni-directional antenna
B. a
directional antenna (Yagi)
C. a directional antenna (patch)
D. an
isotropically designed antenna
Answer: A

4. What is the relationship
between data rate and cell size (coverage area)?
A. The highest data rate has
the largest cell size.
B. The lowest data rate has the smallest cell
size.
C. The highest data rate has the smallest cell size.
D. Only the
transmit power and antenna gain control the cell size not the data
rate.
Answer: C

5. A customer has a current site with an
omni-directional antenna. It has 50 ft. of cabling that they are increasing to
100 ft.This change in cabling could _____.
A. increase the data rate
B.
increase the coverage area
C. decrease the coverage area
D. decrease the
angle of radiation from the antenna
Answer: C

6. What are three
components of WPA (Version 1)? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. 48-bit IV
C.
802.1X authentication
D. 256-bit AES encryption cipher
E. per-packet
keying and Message Integrity Check
Answer: BCE

7. In the U.S., no
licensing is required for which four RF bands? (Choose four.)
A. 902-928
MHz
B. 800-820 MHz
C. 2.400-2.483 GHz
D. 2.500-2.600 GHz
E.
5.150-5.350 GHz
F. 5.725-5.825 GHz
Answer: ACEF

8. The WLSE Cisco
Aironet Conversion Tool allows the administrator to _____.
A. store base AP
configuration
B. convert VxWorks APs to IOS
C. store base client
configuration
D. convert APs to either VxWorks or IOS
Answer: B

4 Which licensing option should you suggest to a client that is
concerned with secure file caching?
A. central license
B. transport
license
C. enterprise license
D. copyright license
Answer: C

3.
What are the two factors that contribute to diminishing application performance?
(Choose two.)
A. bandwidth infrastructure costs
B. lack of storage
infrastructure
C. physical network latency
D. transport network
management
E. transport protocol management
Answer: CE

4. How do
you keep administrative traffic from traversing the WAN?
A. by deploying
centrally-managed services
B. by deploying a firewall with managed
services
C. by using an intrusion prevention system with centrally-managed
services
D. by using an IVS
Answer: A

5. Which three types of
services are ones that WAAS deployment can offer to remote users? (Choose
three.)
A. security
B. file
C. print
D. packet
E. wireless
F.
call-control
Answer: BCF

5 interface Dialer1
ip address 1.1.1.1
255.255.255.0
encapsulation ppp
dialer remote-name
Smalluserdialer
string 4540
dialer pool 3
dialer-group 1
What
statement about this configuration is true?
A. This interface is configured
for legacy DDR and therefore cannot be used for dialer profiles.
B. This
interface is a logical interface whose configuration is only used for inbound
calls on physical interfaces in pool 3.
C. This logical interface belongs to
a group of physical interfaces in group 1.
D. This configuration is not valid
because it is missing the “dialer in-band” command.
E. This interface will
use the name Smalluser instead of the router s hostname for authentication
purposes when connecting to the remote peer.
F. None of the above
Answer:
F

3. What command is used to set the length of time a non-ISDN interface
stays down after a call has been completed or has failed and before it is
available to dial again?
A. dialer enable-timeout
B. dialer holddown
C.
dialer fast-idle
D. dialer idle-timeout
E. dialer
wait-for-carrier-time
Answer: A

4. The configuration register does NOT
retain settings for:
A. An enabled Break key
B. The console baud
rate
C. The boot method
D. An enabled AUX port
Answer: D

5. To
have the router verify a called-party number in the incoming setup message for
an ISDN BRI call:
A. Use isdn tei first-call
B. Include ldn on spid number
line
C. Use isdn answer1
D. Use isdn caller
Answer: C

6. The
purpose of the dialer fast-idle command is:
A. To decrease the amount of time
that an interface is kept down before the next call can be placed – By default,
DTR is held low for five seconds.
B. To specify the amount of time that an
interface can remain idle before being disconnected when new outbound calls need
to be made
C. To decrease the interdigit delay between DTMF tones when
placing a call
D. To increase the rate at which disconnected interfaces
become available for new outbound calls
E. To specify the regular idle
timeout for high speed non-async interfaces
Answer: B

7. The network
administrator has forgotten the enable password of the router. Luckily, no one
is currently logged into the router, but all passwords on the router are
encrypted. What should the administrator do to recover the enable
password?
A. Call the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) for a special
code that will erase the existing password.
B. Reboot the router, press the
break key during bootup, boot the router into ROM monitor mode, and modify the
configuration register so that the current configuration is ignored during
normal bootup
C. Reboot the router, press the BREAK key during bootup, and
boot the router into ROM Monitor mode to erase the configuration, and re-install
the entire configuration as it was saved on a TFTP server.
D. Erase the
configuration, boot the router into ROM Monitor mode, press the BREAK key, and
overwrite the previous enable password with a new one.
Answer: B

8. On
a Cisco router with an external modem, what EIA 232 signal will be received by
the access server to indicate the presence of an incoming call?
A. Request To
Send
B. Clear To Send
C. Data Terminal Ready
D. Data Set Ready
E.
Loopback
Answer: D

6 What set of primitive signals is
valid for arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS,
ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. CLS, OPN,
ARB
Answer: E

3. Which of these TCP ports does iSNS use?
A.
3205
B. 3225
C. 3226
D. 3325
Answer: A

4. Which three of
these Fibre Channel words are known as primitive signals? (Choose three.)
A.
NOS
B. R_RDY
C. CLS
D. LIP
E. IDLE
Answer: BCE

5. Which of
these is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel
encoding?
A. K28.5
B. 8B/10B
C. 3B/4B
D. D28.5
E. idle
Answer:
A

6. In Cisco MDS, how is a pWWN assigned to a dynamically assigned
iSCSI?
A. by the system
B. by the user in the configuration of the iSCSI
target
C. by the iSCSI host
D. created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver,
and Connection ID
E. by the storage system attached to Fibre
Channel
Answer: A

7. Is the iSNS client supported on VRRP
interfaces?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the storage_services_enabler_pkg
license is enabled on the switch
D. only on Cisco IPS line cards
Answer:
B

8. Can Cisco Fabric Services be used to distribute iSCSI initiator
configurations?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP_18_4
license is installed on the switch
D. only when ENTERPRISE_PKG is installed
on the switch
Answer: A

7 Which do NOT exist?
A. Per VLAN
Spanning Tree (PVST).
B. Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+).
C. Per VLAN
Spanning Tree Plus Plus (PVST++).
D. Rapid STP (RSTP).
E. Resilient STP
(RSTP).
Answer: CE

3. OSPF is defined on a Frame Relay interface
providing point-to-multipoint connections. The remote neighbors can reach this
central site, but are complaining of routing failures between each of the remote
sites. The central router has all the routes for each remote site. Based on this
information, what can be diagnosed as the biggest potential problem?
A. An
over-subscribed Frame Relay switch will cause some packet loss.
B. There are
problems in the use of OSPF Authentication.
C. There is an incorrect
selection of the Designated Router.
D. There is an incorrect DLCI assigned on
a point-to-point sub-interface.
Answer: C

4. EIGRP applies the
principle of Feasible Successor (FS) in resolving a new path to a lost route.
What statement regarding the FS is correct?
A. Information is stored for the
FS as part of the Link-State Routing updates forwarded for EIGRP.
B. EIGRP
estimates the FS from each neighbor for each network after an exchange of
database information during the normal update process. It uses this information
for path selection when a route is lost.
C. When EIGRP is notified that a
route is lost, it will always send requests to each neighbor for ways to reach
the lost route. The neighbor that returns the best path will qualify as the
FS.
D. EIGRP nominates a central router as the FS for all lost routes during
configuration.
Answer: B

5. The Hold-Down Timer used in Distance
Vector protocols:
A. Sets the time limit of how long a router may keep a
packet in its buffer, if the routing protocol is in the process of
converging
B. Determines the number of seconds a router will wait before
sending another update to neighbor routers
C. Sets a specific period for
routers to neither accept nor advertise a route from a destination where an
original route was recently lost
D. Sets a duration where routes are not
accepted from the neighbor router that caused a routing loop
Answer:
C

6. Which commands are valid in ethernet or ethernet VLAN attachment
circuits?
A. match cos
B. match ethernet cos
C. match source-mac
D.
match vlan
E. match ethernet multicast
Answer: AD

7. What kind of
packet is being decoded, using the captured debug mpls l2transport packet data
command, below?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. Ethernet
D. RFC
2427/RFC1490
Answer: D

8. What Q.931 message cannot be received in
response to sending a Q.931 SETUP message?
A. Alerting
B. Call
Proceeding
C. Connect
D. USER Information
E. Progress
Answer: D

8 What will be
upgraded as a result of this command?
upgrade
ftp://ftpuser@10.1.2.3//upgrade/IPS-K9-r-1.1-a-5.1-1.pkg
A. recovery
partition
B. application partition
C. both application and recovery
partitions immediately
D. both application and recovery partitions at the
next scheduled automatic IDSM update
Answer: A

3. How would you
configure a NAM to monitor and report the most heavily viewed sections of a
website?
A. Create a separate domain name or virtual server IP address for
each section of the site. Add each domain name or IP address to the NAM
application protocol directory.
B. Enable regular-expression pattern
matching. Define application protocol filters based on regular expressions that
match the desired URLs.
C. Enable URL monitoring. Define each desired URL as
an application in the protocol directory.
D. Use SPAN or VACLs to capture
upper-layer protocol data from the web servers. Use a third-party application to
parse the stored capture files.
Answer: C

4. Refer to the exhibit.
Which FWSM command allows routing of TCP traffic from the Internet to network
10.0.3.0/24?
A. access-list inside permit tcp 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0
B. route inside 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.1.3
C.
route outside 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.1.3
D. route inside 0 0
10.0.1.3
Answer: B

5. How can you configure the NAM to view a list of
all switches that are sending NDE packets?
A. Enter the command sh
data-source nde.
B. Configure Cisco Discovery Protocol to detect all switches
on the network.
C. Launch NetFlow Listening Mode from the Cisco Traffic
Analyzer application.
D. The NAM will automatically detect NDE broadcasts and
add each switch to the NetFlow device table.
Answer: C

6. Which
command must be issued to activate the FWSM firewall context?
A.
allocate-vlan
B. config-url
C. limit-resource
D.
map-interface
Answer: B

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would
you use on the FWSM to provide a default route from Servers 1 and 2 to the
Internet?
A. route inside 0 0 192.168.100.1
B. route inside 10.1.0.0
255.255.0.0 192.168.1.1
C. route outside 0 0 192.168.100.1
D. route
outside 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.1.1
Answer: C

8. On a Cisco
Catalyst 6500 Series Switch, how many physical links can be aggregated into an
EtherChannel group?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

9 Click the Exhibit to view the
topology.
In this network, Host A is trying to reach Host D. There is no
routing protocol running, but Router B and C have the following static routes
configured:
Router B: ip route 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 ethernet 1
Router C:
ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 ethernet 1
A. This will not work because
Router B has no idea of how to forward traffic to the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
B.
This will work because Router B will recognize that Router C is on the
10.1.2.0/24 network through a router discovery protocol and will forward traffic
for 10.1.3.0/24 to Router C.
C. This will not work because a broadcast
interface in a static route command cannot be specified.
D. This will work
because Router B will ARP for Host D s IP address on the 10.1.2.0/24 network and
Router C will answer.
Answer: D

3. On the CSS, how would you configure
a domain name content rule for www.acme.com?
A. “www.acme.com/*”
B.
“/www.acme.com/*”
C. url “//www.acme.com/*”
D. url
“/www.acme.com/*”
Answer: C

4. MPLS traffic engineering routing
information is carried by:
A. BGP MEDs
B. MP-BGP
C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or
IS-IS TLVs
D. RTP or RTCP packets
Answer: C

5. What is the usual
procedure taken if an unrecognized non-mandatory ISDN IE is received by a
network?
A. Final handle the call
B. Final handle the call if 2 such IE is
received
C. Ignore only if the IE received is not CS0, otherwise final handle
the call
D. Send a Facility msg to the user notifying the user of sending
unknown IEs but don t final handle
E. Ignore the IEs
Answer: E

6.
In ACNS 5.X Content Delivery Network what is the purpose of defining a root
Content Engine for a channel?
A. This Content Engine retrieves content from
other Content Engines within the CDN.
B. This Content Engine is used by the
administrator to manage the Content Delivery Network.
C. This Content Engine
downloads the content from the origin server and distributes the content to all
the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
D. This Content Engine
downloads the content from the Content Distribution Manager and distributes the
content to all the Content Engines that belong to the Channel.
E. None of the
above
Answer: C

7. Click the Exhibit button to view the
topology.
The diagram shows an L2 switched campus. Switch X is the STP root
and switch Y is the standby root. How many of the links in the diagram will be
placed in blocking mode by STP?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 12
D. 13
E. 18
F.
19
Answer: E

8. ATM cells are received across a link on a:
A. Known
PVC or SVC value
B. Known VCI or VPI value
C. Known PVC or VCI value
D.
Known SVC or VPI value
Answer: B